Posted by jake
on January 30, 2009, 2:58 am
66.74.209.5
Isn't it inarguable that refusing abortion to women is immoral according to Kant?
Because aren't we basically making a decision for them?
Going back to the guy at the door looking for the guy hiding in my house example, isn't refusing abortion comparable to disabling the guy at the door to harm the guy hiding? We're not giving them all the information available to make the decisions for themselves.
Also, going a little furter, if we witnessed an immoral act, such as a murder, are we to stop that according to Kant? Isn't that also manipulating/coercing others to conform to what I believe is right?
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