Posted by student on September 30, 2007, 12:01 am So is it true that convergence of a sequence in a space X with respect to a stronger topology implies convergence in a strictly weaker one? But if we fix a topology for a space Y then continuity of a function f:X-->Y with respect to the stronger topology on X doesn't imply continuity with respect to the weaker topology on X?
Hi Professor, 145
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